Monetary policy
Note
India's monetary policy operates through the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) framework under amended RBI Act, 1934 (Sections 45ZA–45ZI), with a CPI headline inflation target of 4% ±2%. Key instruments include the repo rate, reverse repo rate, Standing Deposit Facility (SDF), and the Liquidity Adjustment Facility, deployed under stances such as accommodative, neutral, calibrated tightening, or withdrawal of accommodation. When inflation overshoots the target, rate hikes raise borrowing costs and compress demand, creating a wedge between nominal household expenditure growth and real consumption — distinguishing price-level effects from volume-based growth signals.
In the news
Questions on this topic
Consider the following pairs regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and RBI's key policy instruments under the RBI Act, 1934:
- Repo rate — the rate at which the RBI lends overnight funds to commercial banks against government securities
- FCNR(B) deposits — a scheme that allows resident Indians to hold fixed deposits denominated in Indian rupees
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) — a statutory tool through which the RBI manages system-level liquidity by prescribing the share of deposits banks must hold with it
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: the repo rate is the rate at which the RBI provides short-term (typically overnight) liquidity to commercial banks against eligible collateral such as government securities. It is the primary signalling tool of monetary policy. Pair 3 is also correctly matched: the Cash Reserve Ratio is a statutory liquidity-management instrument under the RBI Act under which commercial banks are required to maintain a specified proportion of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) as cash with the RBI; adjusting the CRR expands or contracts the money supply in the banking system. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposits — FCNR(B) — are fixed-term deposits maintained by non-resident Indians (NRIs) or Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) in freely convertible foreign currencies (such as USD, GBP, EUR), NOT in Indian rupees. The scheme is used by the RBI as a tool to attract foreign exchange inflows to shore up India's forex reserves, which is precisely the context in which it appears in current RBI operations. The scheme that allows NRIs to hold rupee-denominated deposits is NRE (Non-Resident External) or NRO (Non-Resident Ordinary) accounts — not FCNR(B).
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India:
- The MPC was constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, and is mandated to set the policy repo rate with the primary objective of maintaining price stability.
- The inflation target for CPI inflation is set by the MPC itself through a formal resolution, without requiring a notification from the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee was established under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, inserted by the Finance Act, 2016. Its core mandate is to determine the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target — making price stability the primary objective of monetary policy in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The inflation target is NOT set by the MPC. Under the RBI Act framework, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, notifies the inflation target once every five years. The current target is 4% CPI inflation with a tolerance band of ±2% (i.e., a floor of 2% and a ceiling of 6%). The MPC's role is to meet this externally set target, not to determine it. This is a constitutionally significant distinction: the executive sets the goal, the statutory committee decides the instrument (repo rate) to achieve it.
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and India's inflation targeting framework:
- The MPC is constituted under the RBI Act, 1934, and is mandated to set the policy repo rate with the primary objective of maintaining price stability, targeting a CPI inflation rate of 4% with a tolerance band of ±2%.
- The inflation target of 4% (with the ±2% band) is set unilaterally by the RBI's Central Board of Directors and does not require any government notification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The MPC was constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 (inserted by the 2016 amendment), with the mandate to maintain price stability while keeping growth in mind. Its primary tool is setting the policy repo rate. The inflation target is 4% CPI with a lower tolerance of 2% and an upper tolerance of 6% (i.e., ±2% band). Statement 2 is incorrect. The inflation target is NOT set unilaterally by the RBI's Central Board of Directors. Under the RBI Act (Section 45ZA), the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target by notification, and this target is reviewed every five years. The Central Board governs RBI's general operations and has a distinct mandate; it does not set the inflation target. This is a key constitutional-legal distinction between the MPC's rate-setting role and the government's target-setting role.
Consider the following pairs relating to concepts in monetary policy and New Keynesian macroeconomics:
- Wicksellian neutral (natural) rate — The interest rate at which the economy operates at its potential with stable inflation and full employment
- Forward guidance — A monetary policy tool whereby a central bank uses transparency and clear communication to anchor public expectations about future interest rates
- Lucas Critique — The argument that stabilisation policy fails because central banks inevitably run out of conventional monetary tools such as adjusting reserve requirements
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
The Wicksellian neutral (or natural) rate is correctly described as the benchmark interest rate at which the economy operates at its potential — with stable inflation and full employment — against which central banks calibrate their policy rates. Forward guidance is correctly described as a central-bank tool that uses transparency and clear public communication to anchor expectations: if a central bank announces it will keep rates low for two years, long-term borrowing costs can fall immediately, stimulating investment without an actual rate cut. The Lucas Critique, however, is NOT about central banks running out of conventional tools. Lucas argued that traditional Keynesian macroeconomic models were flawed because they assumed that the statistical relationships between variables such as inflation, unemployment, and consumption were stable — but when policymakers act on those relationships, private agents (households and businesses) change their behaviour, altering the very relationships the policy was built on. The Lucas Critique is thus a critique of using historically stable parameter relationships for policy design, not a claim about the exhaustion of monetary instruments. Pair 3 is therefore incorrectly matched.
Consider the following statements regarding India's CPI inflation framework, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), and the distinction between headline and core inflation:
- The MPC, constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 (as amended in 2016), is mandated to maintain CPI inflation at 4% with an upper tolerance limit of 6%, and sets the policy repo rate by majority vote to achieve this target.
- Core inflation, as conventionally measured in India, excludes food and fuel prices from the CPI basket entirely, and a rise in core inflation signals that price pressures have moved beyond supply-side shocks into more generalised demand-driven inflation.
- The inflation target of 4% (with a ±2% tolerance band) is set by the RBI's Central Board of Directors in consultation with the Central Government and is reviewed every five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The MPC was constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 (inserted by the Finance Act, 2016). It sets the policy repo rate by majority vote — with the RBI Governor having a casting vote in a tie — to achieve the flexible inflation target of 4% CPI with an upper tolerance limit of 6% and a lower limit of 2%. Statement 2 is correct. Core inflation in India is conventionally computed by stripping out the food and fuel sub-groups from the headline CPI basket (and in some formulations includes precious metals and other miscellaneous services). A rising core inflation reading — as observed when core moved from 4.16% to 4.6% in September — indicates that price pressures are broadening beyond transient supply-side shocks (like vegetable prices or crude oil) into more persistent, demand-side or cost-push drivers. This is exactly why central banks watch core inflation closely when calibrating monetary policy. Statement 3 is FALSE. The inflation target is NOT set by the RBI's Central Board of Directors. Under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act (as amended in 2016), the inflation target is determined by the Central Government in consultation with the RBI, and notified in the Official Gazette; it is reviewed every five years. The Central Board of Directors governs RBI's general operations and administration (approving accounts, regional representation, etc.) — it is a separate body with a distinct mandate and has no role in setting the inflation target. This is the key conceptual distinction between the MPC/government framework and the RBI's internal governance board.
Consider the following statements regarding the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and its relationship with other inflation indicators in India:
- The WPI in India covers three broad sub-indices: Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products, with Manufactured Products typically carrying the highest weight in the overall index.
- Unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), the WPI does not include services and measures price changes at the first point of bulk commercial transactions, making it a leading indicator of producer-level price pressures.
- Core WPI inflation, which excludes food articles, is identical in scope to core CPI inflation, as both measures exclude the same categories of commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The WPI in India is structured around three sub-indices — Primary Articles (comprising food articles, non-food articles, and minerals), Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products. Manufactured Products command the largest weight (around 64%) in the WPI basket, making them the dominant component of the overall index. Statement 2 is correct. The WPI tracks price changes at the wholesale or producer level — i.e., at the first point of bulk commercial transactions (factory gate / mandi level) — and explicitly excludes services, unlike the CPI which captures retail prices paid by final consumers and includes certain service components. This is why WPI movements are considered a leading signal of cost pressures that may eventually transmit to retail (CPI) inflation. Statement 3 is incorrect. Core WPI inflation and core CPI inflation are NOT identical in scope, even though both exclude food and fuel broadly. The specific baskets differ substantially. Core WPI is drawn from the Manufactured Products sub-index (excluding food manufactures), while core CPI excludes food and beverages and fuel from a consumer-retail basket that includes services such as health and education. The methodological scope, coverage, and item weights differ considerably between the two measures.
Consider the following statements regarding government bond yields and their relationship with macroeconomic variables:
- When a government bond's market price rises due to increased demand, its yield falls — because the fixed interest payment now represents a smaller return relative to the higher price paid.
- Rising bond yields in an economy signal that borrowing costs are declining for governments and households, since higher yields indicate investor confidence in the economy.
- In a deflationary or near-zero inflation environment, central banks have little reason to raise short-term interest rates, which tends to keep bond yields suppressed relative to high-inflation economies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The inverse relationship between bond prices and yields is a foundational concept in fixed-income markets: a bond pays a fixed coupon; if more investors buy it and drive its price up, the fixed coupon represents a lower percentage return on the now-higher price, so the yield falls. This is precisely why rising demand for bonds — such as when Chinese savers pour savings into government securities — causes yields to fall even without any change in the bond's stated coupon. Statement 2 is false. Rising bond yields signal HIGHER borrowing costs, not lower ones. Since government bonds are the benchmark 'risk-free' rate, when yields rise, all other borrowing in the economy — corporate loans, home loans, government deficit financing — becomes more expensive. The statement inverts the relationship by claiming rising yields reflect investor confidence and declining costs, which contradicts the core transmission mechanism. Statement 3 is correct. Monetary policy transmission links short-term policy rates set by central banks to longer-term bond yields. When inflation is low or negative (deflation), a central bank has no inflationary pressure to counter, so it keeps policy rates low. Low short-term rates anchor long-term bond yields at lower levels compared with high-inflation economies where central banks must raise rates aggressively, pushing yields up as investors demand inflation-adjusted returns.
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and India's inflation-targeting framework under the RBI Act:
- The MPC is mandated to maintain CPI inflation at 4%, with an upper tolerance band of 6% and a lower tolerance band of 2%, and a breach of this band for three consecutive quarters triggers a mandatory report to the government.
- The repo rate — the rate at which the RBI lends overnight funds to commercial banks — is the primary instrument the MPC uses to signal the stance of monetary policy and influence inflation.
- The RBI Act provides that the inflation target is set by the MPC itself in consultation with the government, which the government then notifies in the Official Gazette.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. Under the amended RBI Act (Section 45ZA), the inflation target is set by the central government in consultation with the RBI — not by the MPC — and is notified in the Official Gazette every five years. The target is 4% CPI with a ±2 percentage-point band (i.e., 2%–6%). Critically, under Section 45ZN, if the MPC fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters, the RBI must submit a report to the central government explaining the reasons for failure and the remedial actions proposed. This 'failure' accountability mechanism is a key structural feature of the framework. Statement 2 is correct. The repo rate is the overnight lending rate of the RBI to banks under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and is the primary signalling tool of the MPC. By raising the repo rate, the MPC increases the cost of credit, dampening demand-pull inflation — precisely the transmission mechanism relevant when inflation threatens to breach the upper tolerance band. Statement 3 is false. The inflation target is NOT set by the MPC. Under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, the central government determines the inflation target in consultation with the RBI Governor and notifies it. The MPC's mandate is to meet the target thus set, not to determine it. Confusing the body that sets the target with the body that is accountable for meeting it is a common conceptual error.
Consider the following pairs relating to monetary policy transmission mechanisms in India:
- External Benchmark Lending Rate (EBLR) — Loan pricing directly and mandatorily linked to an external benchmark such as the RBI repo rate, ensuring near-immediate transmission of policy rate changes to borrowers
- Net Interest Margin (NIM) — The difference between a bank's yield on advances and its cost of deposits, reflecting the spread earned on its intermediation function
- FCNR(B) deposits — Foreign currency non-repatriable deposits held by resident Indians for medium- to long-term tenures, hedged against forex risk via an RBI swap facility
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly described: under the EBLR framework mandated by the RBI since October 2019, all new floating-rate retail and MSME loans must be priced to an external benchmark (typically the repo rate). Any change in the repo rate by the Monetary Policy Committee is thus transmitted to such borrowers almost immediately — the next working day, in PNB's stated policy. This is the core mechanism of monetary policy transmission to the lending side. Pair 2 is also correctly described: Net Interest Margin is a standard banking metric — the spread between what a bank earns on its loan portfolio (yield on advances) and what it pays on its liabilities (cost of deposits). A narrowing NIM indicates compression in intermediation earnings; a widening NIM (as seen when bulk/high-cost deposits are replaced with cheaper funding) signals improved profitability from core operations. Pair 3 is incorrectly described. FCNR(B) — Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Banks) — deposits are accounts held by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), not by resident Indians. These deposits are denominated in foreign currencies (USD, GBP, etc.) and are fully repatriable, meaning both principal and interest can be freely remitted abroad. The RBI does offer a swap facility to banks to hedge the currency risk on these deposits, which is correctly stated — but the fundamental characterisation of who holds them (NRIs, not resident Indians) and their repatriability status makes Pair 3 wrong.
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India and the flexible inflation targeting framework:
- The MPC consists of six members, with three drawn from the RBI (including the Governor, who chairs the committee) and three appointed by the Government of India.
- Under the flexible inflation targeting framework, the MPC operates with a target of 4% CPI inflation, with an upper tolerance band of 6% and a lower tolerance band of 2%.
- When the MPC is split on a decision, the Governor holds a casting vote; however, all members are required to vote identically on both the policy rate and the monetary policy stance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The MPC has six members — the RBI Governor (chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one RBI officer nominated by the Central Board, and three external members appointed by the Government of India. This composition is mandated under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934. Statement 2 is also correct: Under the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework adopted in India, the inflation target is 4% CPI with a tolerance band of +/- 2 percentage points — meaning a lower band of 2% and an upper band of 6%. Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Governor does hold a casting vote in the event of a tie, MPC members are NOT required to vote identically on the policy rate and the monetary policy stance. These are treated as separate decisions. This is clearly illustrated by the October 2026 MPC meeting, where all six members unanimously voted to hike the repo rate by 25 bps, yet two members — Dr. Nagesh Kumar and Prof. Ram Singh — voted against shifting the stance from neutral to calibrated tightening. The dissenting members supported the rate action but opposed the stance change, demonstrating that votes on the rate and stance are independently cast.
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and India's flexible inflation targeting framework under the RBI Act:
- The MPC is a six-member body under the RBI Act, comprising three members from the RBI — including the Governor, who chairs it — and three external members appointed by the government.
- Under the flexible inflation targeting framework, the RBI is mandated to maintain Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation at 4%, with a tolerance band of ±2%, and a sustained breach of the upper tolerance limit triggers a mandatory review process.
- The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks, and changes in the policy stance — such as moving from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening' — signal the MPC's directional intent on future rate movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
All three statements correctly describe the MPC framework. Statement 1 is accurate: the MPC has six members — the RBI Governor (Chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one RBI officer nominated by the Central Board, and three external members nominated by the Government of India. Statement 2 is accurate: under the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework enshrined in the RBI Act (after the 2016 amendment), the CPI inflation target is 4% with a ±2% tolerance band (i.e., 2%–6%); if inflation remains outside this band for three consecutive quarters, the RBI must submit a report to the government explaining the reasons and remedial steps — this is the 'failure' review mechanism. Statement 3 is accurate: the repo rate is the rate at which the RBI provides short-term liquidity to commercial banks against collateral, and the policy stance (e.g., 'neutral', 'withdrawal of accommodation', 'calibrated tightening') communicates the committee's forward-looking bias without committing to a specific rate path. These are all foundational features of India's monetary policy architecture.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and India's flexible inflation targeting framework under the RBI Act:
- Repo rate — The policy rate set by the MPC that anchors short-term borrowing costs and signals the monetary policy stance
- 2–6 per cent tolerance band — The statutory inflation target range within which the MPC is mandated to keep CPI inflation, with 4 per cent as the midpoint
- Interest-rate differential with advanced economies — Influences foreign portfolio debt inflows into India, as higher Indian rates attract carry-trade capital seeking better returns
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
All three pairs are correctly matched. First, the repo rate is the key policy instrument of the MPC — it is the rate at which the RBI lends overnight funds to commercial banks, and changes to it signal the overall stance of monetary policy, transmitting through the economy to lending and deposit rates. Second, under the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework institutionalised by the RBI (Amendment) Act, 2016, the Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, notified a CPI inflation target of 4 per cent with a tolerance band of ±2 percentage points — i.e., 2 to 6 per cent. The MPC is mandated to keep inflation within this band, and a breach for three consecutive quarters triggers a mandatory explanation to the government. Third, the interest-rate differential between India and advanced economies (especially G7 nations) is a recognised driver of foreign portfolio investment in Indian debt markets — when India's rates are significantly higher, it attracts carry-trade flows from investors in low-yield economies, making this differential a genuine monetary policy consideration alongside the domestic inflation mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and the flexible inflation-targeting framework under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934:
- The RBI Act mandates that the MPC must begin corrective measures if CPI inflation remains outside the tolerance band of 2–6% for three consecutive quarters, and the committee is required to submit a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons for failure and the remedial actions proposed.
- Under the flexible inflation-targeting framework, the MPC's primary objective is price stability, and economic growth is considered only to the extent it does not conflict with that primary objective.
- The MPC consists of six members — three from the RBI (including the Governor, who chairs and holds a casting vote) and three external members appointed by the Central Government — and decisions are made by a majority vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. Under the RBI Act, 1934, as amended by the Finance Act, 2016, if the MPC fails to meet the inflation target (4% with a tolerance band of 2–6%) for three consecutive quarters, it is deemed a failure, and the RBI is obligated to submit a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons for the breach and proposing corrective actions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The flexible inflation-targeting framework does not make price stability an absolute override of growth. The statutory mandate under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act is to maintain price stability 'while keeping in mind the objective of growth.' Growth is a co-objective, not merely residual — the word 'flexible' in the framework precisely signals that the MPC balances both. The statement misrepresents this by implying growth only matters when it does not conflict with price stability. Statement 3 is correct. The MPC has six members: the RBI Governor (chairperson with a casting vote in the event of a tie), the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, and one RBI officer nominated by the Central Board — these three from the RBI side — and three external members nominated by the Central Government. Decisions are taken by a majority of votes cast.
Consider the following pairs relating to monetary policy concepts and their descriptions:
- Forward guidance — A central bank's communication about the likely future path of policy rates, used by markets to anticipate upcoming decisions
- Financial conditions tightening — A rise in the effective cost of borrowing and reduced risk appetite in the economy, which can substitute for a formal policy rate increase
- Inflation targeting — A monetary policy framework in which a central bank sets an explicit numerical goal for the price-level change rate and adjusts its policy rate to achieve it
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
All three pairs are correctly matched. Forward guidance refers to a central bank's explicit communication about its future policy intentions; when markets trust these signals, the central bank can influence long-term rates without actually moving its policy rate. Financial conditions tightening occurs when broader market movements — rising bond yields, a stronger currency, wider credit spreads, or a falling stock market — collectively restrict credit and spending in a manner equivalent to an official rate hike; central banks monitor this because it can reduce the need for a formal rate increase. Inflation targeting is the framework adopted by most major central banks, including the US Federal Reserve (with its 2% target), under which the policy rate is the primary instrument used to steer actual inflation toward the stated numerical goal. Understanding how these three concepts interact — forward guidance shapes expectations, financial conditions transmit rate decisions (or replace them), and inflation targeting anchors the entire framework — is central to analysing any central bank's policy stance.
Consider the following pairs regarding India's monetary policy and inflation management framework:
- RBI's inflation target band — 2% to 6% CPI, with 4% as the midpoint
- Repo rate stance shift — From 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening' following a rate hike
- Imported inflation buffer — RBI supplying direct dollar liquidity to private-sector banks
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Under the RBI Act (as amended in 2016), the flexible inflation targeting framework sets the CPI inflation target at 4%, with a tolerance band of 2–6% — the floor at 2% and ceiling at 6% are well-established in India's monetary policy architecture. Pair 2 is correctly matched: When the RBI shifts its monetary policy stance from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening', it signals that while rate hikes remain on the table, rate cuts are off the table for the immediate future — a nuanced posture distinct from outright 'tightening'. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: To buffer extreme exchange rate volatility and mitigate imported inflation risks, the RBI supplied direct dollar liquidity to public-sector oil-marketing companies (OMCs), not to private-sector banks. Oil-marketing companies are the key channel because they are among the largest buyers of foreign exchange in India, and dollar supply to them directly reduces pressure on the rupee from oil import payments.
Consider the following statements regarding India's flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework under the RBI Act:
- Under the FIT framework, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is mandated to maintain headline CPI inflation at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
- If the MPC fails to keep CPI inflation within the tolerance band for three consecutive quarters, it is required to submit a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons for the failure and the remedial action proposed.
- The MPC determines the policy repo rate by majority vote, with the RBI Governor having a casting vote in the event of a tie, and the final rate decision being binding on the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
All three statements accurately describe the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework as operationalised through amendments to the RBI Act, 1934 (specifically Sections 45ZA–45ZL inserted in 2016). Statement 1 is correct: the target is 4% CPI headline inflation with a band of +/- 2 percentage points (i.e., 2%–6%). Statement 2 is correct: if inflation breaches the band for three consecutive quarters, the MPC must send a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons and the corrective measures envisaged — this accountability mechanism is a defining feature of the FIT architecture. Statement 3 is correct: the MPC decides the policy repo rate by majority; in a tie, the Governor (who chairs the MPC) has a casting vote, and the rate so decided is binding on the RBI — unlike the earlier regime where the Governor decided unilaterally. These three features together constitute the core institutional design of inflation targeting in India.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Currency-in-Circulation-to-GDP (CIC-to-GDP) ratio and its implications in monetary economics:
- A high CIC-to-GDP ratio — Indicates heavy reliance on cash for transactions and generally complicates monetary policy transmission
- Currency with the public — Calculated by deducting cash held by banks from total currency in circulation
- A lower CIC-to-GDP ratio driven by digitalisation — Generally enables smoother monetary policy transmission and better inflation control
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
All three pairs are correctly matched. First, a high CIC-to-GDP ratio indicates that people and businesses rely heavily on physical cash rather than banking or digital channels; this high cash dependence tends to weaken monetary policy transmission because a large portion of economic activity occurs outside the formal banking system where policy rate changes propagate. Second, the RBI defines 'currency with the public' as total currency in circulation (notes and coins issued by the central bank) minus the cash held by banks — this is the standard monetary aggregate used to gauge cash in the hands of the non-banking public. Third, a lower CIC-to-GDP ratio, achieved through greater digitalisation and reduced cash dependence, generally enables smoother monetary policy transmission and better inflation control because more transactions flow through the formal banking system, making interest-rate signals more effective. All three characterisations reflect standard monetary-economics principles around cash intensity and policy transmission.
Consider the following statements regarding India's flexible inflation targeting framework and the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India:
- Under India's flexible inflation targeting framework, the RBI is mandated to maintain CPI inflation at 4 per cent with a tolerance band of ±2 per cent, implying that sustained headline inflation near 6 per cent — while technically within the band — still signals upside risk and can prompt monetary tightening.
- The MPC's primary instrument for anchoring inflation expectations is the repo rate, and rate hikes work to dampen private investment by raising the cost of borrowing for firms.
- Under India's inflation targeting framework, the MPC is required to submit an explanation to the Government if headline CPI inflation breaches the upper tolerance limit for three consecutive quarters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
All three statements are correct. First, India's flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework — operationalised under the amended RBI Act — sets the CPI inflation target at 4 per cent with a lower bound of 2 per cent and an upper bound of 6 per cent. Inflation hovering near the upper bound (6%) is technically within the band but represents a risk condition that justifies further monetary tightening, which is precisely the concern Moody's flags regarding India's near-term outlook. Second, the MPC's principal policy instrument is the repo rate. When the MPC raises the repo rate, borrowing costs for banks rise, which is transmitted through the financial system to firms and households — higher lending rates increase the cost of capital for private investors, discouraging or delaying investment decisions. This is the standard monetary policy transmission mechanism. Third, under Section 45ZN of the RBI Act, 1934 (read with the RBI (Monetary Policy Process) Regulations, 2016), the MPC is statutorily obligated to send a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons for failure and the remedial actions proposed if CPI inflation remains outside the ±2% tolerance band for three consecutive quarters. This accountability mechanism is a core feature of the FIT architecture in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India's flexible inflation-targeting (FIT) framework and its implications for monetary policy transmission:
- Under the flexible inflation-targeting framework, the RBI is mandated to maintain headline CPI inflation at 4 per cent, with a tolerance band of ±2 per cent, meaning the upper tolerance limit is 6 per cent.
- In the flexible inflation-targeting framework, the RBI's primary instrument for anchoring inflation expectations is the repo rate, and tighter monetary policy (rate hikes) is expected to work against private investment recovery by raising the cost of capital.
- The flexible inflation-targeting framework adopted by India requires the RBI to target the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) as the headline inflation measure, with the Consumer Price Index (CPI) used only as a supplementary reference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
India's flexible inflation-targeting (FIT) framework, formalised through an amendment to the Reserve Bank of India Act in 2016, sets CPI-based headline inflation at 4 per cent as the target, with a lower tolerance of 2 per cent and an upper tolerance of 6 per cent — making 6 per cent the upper bound of the band. Statement 1 correctly reflects this. Statement 2 is correct: within the FIT framework, the repo rate is the primary policy instrument. When the RBI raises rates to contain inflation that is near the upper tolerance limit, the higher cost of borrowing dampens the appetite for private capital expenditure, thereby delaying investment recovery — a standard monetary policy transmission channel. Statement 3 is incorrect: the FIT framework explicitly designates the Consumer Price Index (CPI) — specifically CPI-Combined — as the headline inflation measure for targeting purposes, not the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). WPI is published separately and tracked for producer-price signals, but it has no mandated role in the FIT framework.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934:
- Mandate of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) — Maintaining CPI inflation at 4% with an upper tolerance band of 6% and a lower tolerance band of 2%
- Consequence of MPC failing to meet the inflation target — The RBI Governor must resign from office
- Primary instrument used by MPC to anchor inflation — The repo rate (policy rate), adjusted to influence credit conditions and aggregate demand
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Under the Flexible Inflation Targeting framework inserted into the RBI Act, 1934 (via the 2016 amendment), the MPC is mandated to maintain CPI inflation at 4%, within a tolerance band of +/- 2% — meaning the operative target range is 2% to 6%. Pair 1 is correctly matched. The RBI's primary monetary policy instrument is the repo rate; adjustments to it influence borrowing costs, credit expansion, and thereby private investment and consumption — this is the classic transmission channel FIT relies upon. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: if the MPC fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters, the RBI is required to submit a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons for the failure and the remedial steps proposed — the Governor does not resign. There is no provision for automatic resignation; accountability is through statutory reporting to the government.
Your record on this topic
Sign in to see how many of these you have answered, which ones you got wrong, and to practise this topic on its own.
Sign in →