UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 8 August 2026

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Five free, with explanations

SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 · GS-II

SocietyPIB8 August

Dr. Ambedkar Foundation’s Inter-Caste Marriage and Atrocity Victims Relief Schemes Merged with Centrally Sponsored Scheme from March 31, 2023 ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for the Implementation of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989:Answer ▾
  1. Under this Centrally Sponsored Scheme, Central assistance is provided to State Governments and Union Territory Administrations for implementation.
  2. The responsibility for effective implementation of the scheme rests with the Central Government, not with the State Governments or UT Administrations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme implementing the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the Centre provides financial assistance to State Governments and UT Administrations — this is the standard federal architecture of centrally sponsored schemes where the Centre funds but States execute. The scheme is implemented by the respective State Governments and UT Administrations, and the responsibility for its effective implementation rests with them — not with the Central Government. Statement 1 is therefore correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect because it inverts the actual locus of implementation responsibility.

Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) · GS-II

Economy, Industry & AgriculturePIB8 August

No Charges for UPI Users ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (PSS Act) and the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) framework for UPI:Answer ▾
  1. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 is the primary legislation that governs payment systems in India, and the Reserve Bank of India is the designated regulator under this Act.
  2. The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) refers to the fee that a merchant pays to a bank or payment service provider for processing a digital transaction, and it is distinct from any charge levied on the end consumer making the payment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 is the foundational statute governing payment and settlement systems in India. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the statutory regulator under this Act — it authorises and oversees payment system operators, including NPCI. NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) is an umbrella organisation for retail payment systems but functions under the regulatory oversight of the RBI within the PSS Act framework. Statement 2 is also correct. MDR (Merchant Discount Rate) is the charge borne by the merchant — not the customer — for accepting digital payments. It is a percentage of the transaction value that is shared among the acquiring bank, the issuing bank, and the payment network. The key conceptual distinction is that MDR is a cost on the merchant side of the transaction; it is structurally separate from any fee that might be levied on the consumer making the payment. This distinction is central to the policy debate around UPI charges: the government's stated position is that consumers will never be charged, while any future MDR under the amended PSS Act would apply only to a limited category of merchant transactions.

Monetary policy · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureThe Hindu8 August

Prudent approach: On the RBI’s interest rate-setting committee meeting ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and RBI's key policy instruments under the RBI Act, 1934:Answer ▾
  1. Repo rate — the rate at which the RBI lends overnight funds to commercial banks against government securities
  2. FCNR(B) deposits — a scheme that allows resident Indians to hold fixed deposits denominated in Indian rupees
  3. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) — a statutory tool through which the RBI manages system-level liquidity by prescribing the share of deposits banks must hold with it

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: the repo rate is the rate at which the RBI provides short-term (typically overnight) liquidity to commercial banks against eligible collateral such as government securities. It is the primary signalling tool of monetary policy. Pair 3 is also correctly matched: the Cash Reserve Ratio is a statutory liquidity-management instrument under the RBI Act under which commercial banks are required to maintain a specified proportion of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) as cash with the RBI; adjusting the CRR expands or contracts the money supply in the banking system. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposits — FCNR(B) — are fixed-term deposits maintained by non-resident Indians (NRIs) or Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) in freely convertible foreign currencies (such as USD, GBP, EUR), NOT in Indian rupees. The scheme is used by the RBI as a tool to attract foreign exchange inflows to shore up India's forex reserves, which is precisely the context in which it appears in current RBI operations. The scheme that allows NRIs to hold rupee-denominated deposits is NRE (Non-Resident External) or NRO (Non-Resident Ordinary) accounts — not FCNR(B).

EnvironmentThe Hindu8 August

Supreme Court quashes 2021 order on ex post facto environmental clearances, but upholds Centre’s power to provide ‘amnesty schemes’ ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) framework under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the EIA Notification, 2006:Answer ▾
  1. The EIA Notification, 2006 is a piece of delegated legislation, and its mandatory prior-clearance requirements can be substantially altered only through a subsequent notification of appropriate legal standing, not through a mere administrative order.
  2. The precautionary principle and sustainable development doctrine, which underpin the EIA framework, permit the executive to institute a perpetual ex post facto clearance regime for all categories of projects through an Office Memorandum, provided the memorandum satisfies the test of reasonableness.
  3. Ex post facto environmental clearances granted under a valid amnesty notification — as distinct from those issued under a plain administrative order — may be recognised as legally valid in appropriate cases involving supervening public interest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: under India's EIA framework, the EIA Notification, 2006 is delegated legislation issued under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. Its substantive requirements — including the mandatory prior environmental clearance — cannot be overridden by a mere executive/administrative order such as an Office Memorandum; any amendment must itself take the form of a subsequent notification of equivalent legal authority. Statement 2 is false: the precautionary principle and sustainable development doctrine do not licence a blanket, perpetual ex post facto clearance regime covering all project categories through an administrative order. Such a regime must be time-bound, select, and linked to identifiable supervening public interest; the absence of an 'intelligible differentia' connecting the projects chosen to supervening public interest renders a perpetual, all-encompassing amnesty order ultra vires the Environment Protection Act, 1986, and violative of Articles 14 and 21. Statement 3 is correct: the law distinguishes between ex post facto clearances granted under a properly framed amnesty notification (which can be legally valid for select, deserving projects of supervening public interest) and those granted under a plain administrative order (which lack legal foundation). The distinction between notification-based amnesty and order-based amnesty is the conceptual core of the EIA framework's approach to retrospective clearances.

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