UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 10 October 2026

Published

The news and its questions

Five free, with explanations

Monetary policy · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureMint10 October

RBI may hike repo rate by 75-100 bps in current cycle as inflation persists- SBI Capital flags December hike risk ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India:Answer ▾
  1. The MPC was constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, and is mandated to set the policy repo rate with the primary objective of maintaining price stability.
  2. The inflation target for CPI inflation is set by the MPC itself through a formal resolution, without requiring a notification from the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee was established under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, inserted by the Finance Act, 2016. Its core mandate is to determine the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target — making price stability the primary objective of monetary policy in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The inflation target is NOT set by the MPC. Under the RBI Act framework, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, notifies the inflation target once every five years. The current target is 4% CPI inflation with a tolerance band of ±2% (i.e., a floor of 2% and a ceiling of 6%). The MPC's role is to meet this externally set target, not to determine it. This is a constitutionally significant distinction: the executive sets the goal, the statutory committee decides the instrument (repo rate) to achieve it.

Fundamental Rights · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained10 October

Delhi internet shutdown: Why do 2024 Telecom Rules say about suspension orders? ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework governing internet shutdowns in India under the Telecommunications (Temporary Suspension of Services) Rules, 2024 and related constitutional jurisprudence:Answer ▾
  1. Under the 2024 Telecom Rules, in unavoidable circumstances, an officer of at least Joint Secretary rank may issue a suspension order, but such an order must be confirmed by the competent authority — the Union or State Home Secretary — within 24 hours.
  2. The Supreme Court in Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020) held that internet access is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) and therefore any suspension of internet services, however brief, is per se unconstitutional.
  3. The 2024 Telecom Rules expressly require that a copy of every suspension order be forwarded to a review committee within 24 hours of its issuance, but do not expressly require the review committee's findings themselves to be published.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The 2024 Rules allow an authorised officer of at least Joint Secretary rank to issue a suspension order in unavoidable circumstances, but this is subject to confirmation by the competent authority (Union or State Home Secretary) within 24 hours — a procedural safeguard that preserves accountability. Statement 2 is incorrect and contains a critical doctrinal distortion. The Supreme Court in Anuradha Bhasin (2020) did not hold that internet access is itself an absolute fundamental right, nor did it rule that any suspension is per se unconstitutional. Rather, the Court held that the freedom of speech and expression and the freedom to practise a profession over the medium of the internet enjoy constitutional protection under Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g). Crucially, the Court applied the proportionality test — meaning restrictions on internet services are permissible if they satisfy that test; what is impermissible is indefinite suspension or suspension without a published, reviewable order. The right is to freedom of expression (which internet use facilitates), not to internet access as a standalone fundamental right, and restrictions satisfying proportionality are constitutional. Statement 3 is correct. The 2024 Rules expressly require that a copy of the suspension order be forwarded to the review committee within 24 hours of issuance, and the committee must meet within five days to assess compliance. However, the Rules do not expressly mandate publication of the review committee's findings — a gap distinct from the mandatory publication requirement for the suspension order itself (which was incorporated from the Anuradha Bhasin direction).

Just transition · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureIndian Express Explained10 October

US begins probe into EU’s carbon border tax: How India could benefit ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle and its application in international trade agreements:Answer ▾
  1. Forward-MFN clause — an obligation where any more favourable treatment granted by a party to a third country in the future is automatically extended to the other contracting party
  2. Standard MFN clause in WTO agreements — permits a member to apply preferential tariff rates within a Free Trade Agreement without extending those preferences to all WTO members
  3. CBAM-linked forward-MFN clause secured by India — guarantees that flexibilities the EU grants to any third country under CBAM will automatically flow to India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

A 'forward-MFN' clause is correctly described as an obligation binding a party to extend, automatically and prospectively, any better treatment it offers a third country in the future to the original beneficiary. This is distinct from a standard backward-looking MFN obligation, which addresses existing conditions at the time of the agreement. India's inclusion of such a clause in its trade deal with the EU on CBAM is precisely this — any CBAM flexibility the EU extends to the US or another partner must equally benefit India. Pair 1 and Pair 3 are therefore correctly matched. Pair 2, however, is wrong in substance: the standard MFN obligation under WTO rules does NOT permit a member to apply preferential rates within an FTA without extending them to all WTO members — on the contrary, this is exactly what MFN prohibits. It is the GATT Article XXIV exception (permitting regional trade agreements under strict conditions) that allows FTA preferences not to be multilateralised. Conflating MFN with the Article XXIV exception is a classic and important conceptual error.

Article 370 and J&K statehood · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained10 October

Regional imbalance, different yardsticks: Controversy over J&K’s EWS certificates ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the 103rd Constitutional Amendment and the EWS reservation framework:Answer ▾
  1. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) into the Constitution, enabling the State to make special provisions for the advancement of Economically Weaker Sections, including reservations in educational institutions and public employment.
  2. The EWS reservation quota introduced by the 103rd Amendment applies to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and Economically Weaker Sections together, and the combined ceiling for all reservations, including EWS, is fixed at 60% by the Amendment itself.
  3. Union Territories, including Jammu and Kashmir (after its reorganisation), are subject to the EWS reservation framework, with the Lieutenant Governor empowered to administer and implement such reservation rules in the absence of a fully empowered legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment (2019) inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6), which enable the State to make special provisions — including reservations in aided or unaided private educational institutions and in public posts — for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens other than those already covered under Articles 15(4), 15(5), and 16(4). The quota is capped at 10% in addition to existing reservations. Statement 2 is incorrect on two counts: the EWS reservation is distinct from, and is in addition to, reservations for OBCs and SCs/STs — it does not merge with OBC reservation. More importantly, the 103rd Amendment does not fix a combined ceiling of 60% for all reservations; the existing judicial ceiling (from Indra Sawhney, 1992) remains at 50% for reservations other than EWS, with the 10% EWS quota being a constitutionally carved-out addition. Statement 3 is correct. J&K, reorganised as a Union Territory in 2019, is governed under the constitutional framework applicable to UTs. The Lieutenant Governor, as the administrator of the UT, is empowered to frame and implement reservation rules — which is precisely how the J&K Reservation Rules, 2005 were amended in September 2019 to incorporate the 10% EWS quota.

Days with questions

Earlier days →