UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 9 October 2026

Published

The news and its questions

Five free, with explanations

Election Commission of India · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceThe Hindu9 October

BJP alleges HC order violation over Kozhikode Corporation’s resolution against CEC ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional status of the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the distinction between the ECI and the State Election Commission:Answer ▾
  1. The Election Commission of India derives its authority from Article 324 of the Constitution and is responsible for superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice President.
  2. The State Election Commission, established under Article 243K for Panchayats and Article 243ZA for Municipalities, shares concurrent jurisdiction with the Election Commission of India over municipal and panchayat elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 324, which vests in it the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and of elections to the offices of President and Vice President of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the State Election Commission and the Election Commission of India do not share concurrent or overlapping jurisdiction over municipal and panchayat elections. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (Articles 243K and 243ZA respectively) created a separate and independent State Election Commission exclusively for conducting elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. The ECI has no role in these local body elections, and the State Election Commission has no role in elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, or the Presidency. Their jurisdictions are constitutionally distinct, not concurrent. This distinction is directly relevant to the present controversy: the Kozhikode Corporation Council — a municipal body — passed a resolution concerning the Chief Election Commissioner of the ECI, an authority that conducts elections entirely outside the local body's own electoral governance.

Polity & GovernancePIB9 October

PRESS RELEASE ON the 382nd REPORT OF The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth and Sports on "Reforms and Strengthening of the National Testing Agency (NTA)" ↗

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Standing Committees and their oversight role over statutory/autonomous bodies such as the National Testing Agency (NTA):Answer ▾
  1. Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees (DRSCs) can examine the functioning of autonomous bodies under a ministry's purview and make recommendations for structural and accountability reforms to Parliament.
  2. The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established as a statutory body by an Act of Parliament, with its accountability to Parliament enshrined in the parent legislation.
  3. Parliamentary Standing Committees draw their authority to scrutinise executive-controlled bodies from the broader constitutional principle that the executive is collectively responsible to the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees (DRSCs) are constitutionally recognised instruments of legislative oversight. They routinely examine the functioning of ministries, departments, and bodies under their purview — including autonomous agencies — and submit reports with observations and recommendations to Parliament. The 382nd Report on NTA is a direct example of this oversight in action. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NTA is not a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament. It was established in 2017 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, under the aegis of the Ministry of Education. Its mandate under the National Education Policy 2020 framework is executive in nature, not legislative. The Parliamentary Standing Committee itself has recommended that an appropriate parliamentary framework be introduced to formalise NTA's accountability to Parliament — precisely because such a framework does not currently exist in statute. Statement 3 is correct. The authority of Parliamentary Committees to scrutinise the executive and bodies under its control flows from the fundamental constitutional principle of collective ministerial responsibility to the House of the People (Article 75(3)), which makes the executive answerable to the legislature. Standing Committees operationalise this accountability on a continuous basis between sessions of Parliament.

Economy, Industry & AgricultureThe Hindu BusinessLine9 October

GST Council: No more arrest powers, no rate rejig ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the GST Council established under Article 279A of the Constitution of India:Answer ▾
  1. The GST Council is a constitutional body that makes recommendations on matters relating to goods and services tax, including tax rates, exemptions, and principles of levy.
  2. Input tax credit (ITC) under GST allows a buyer to claim credit for tax paid on inputs, but disputes can arise when a seller has not remitted the collected tax to the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The GST Council is established under Article 279A of the Constitution of India (inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016), making it a constitutional body — not merely a statutory one. Its mandate includes making recommendations on GST rates, exemptions, threshold limits, model GST laws, and principles governing the place of supply. Statement 2 is also correct. A structural tension in the ITC framework is the 'broken-chain' problem: a downstream buyer is entitled to ITC on tax charged to them by a seller, but if the seller fails to deposit that tax with the government, the buyer's ITC claim becomes disputed. This is a well-known compliance challenge — the GST Council's recent deliberations on enabling ITC for buyers even when the seller has not paid the tax directly reflect this static-knowledge issue about ITC mechanics.

Economy, Industry & AgriculturePIB Hindi9 October

राष्ट्रीय सांख्यिकी कार्यालय ने वर्ष 2022-23 को आधार वर्ष मानकर व्यय पद्धति के आधार पर सकल राज्य घरेलू उत्पाद अनुमानों के संकलन हेतु मसौदा दिशानिर्देश जारी किए ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the expenditure approach to measuring Gross Domestic Product (GDP) / Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP):Answer ▾
  1. Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE), Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF), and net exports are key expenditure-side components used in compiling GSDP under the expenditure method.
  2. The expenditure approach to GDP/GSDP measurement is a substitute for, and thus replaces, the production (output) approach in national accounts compilation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Under the expenditure method of measuring GDP/GSDP, the economy's output is measured by summing all expenditures on final goods and services. The standard components are: Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE — household spending), Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE — government current spending on goods and services), Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF — investment in fixed assets), changes in inventories, acquisitions of valuables, and net exports (exports minus imports). These are the building blocks of the expenditure-side identity: GDP = C + G + I + (X – M). Statement 2 is incorrect. The expenditure approach does not replace the production (value-added) or income approach — it is a complementary method. National accounts frameworks use all three approaches (production, income, and expenditure) in an integrated manner; each provides a different analytical lens on the same underlying economic activity, and together they strengthen the overall national accounts architecture. Compiling GSDP from the expenditure side supplements — it does not substitute — estimates made from the production or income sides.

Fundamental Rights · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained9 October

Before CJP protest, BNSS Section 163 imposed in New Delhi: What this means ↗

Consider the following statements regarding Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) — the successor to Section 144 of the CrPC — and the constitutional and judicial limits placed on this Executive Magistrate power:Answer ▾
  1. In Babulal Parate v. State of Maharashtra (1961), the Supreme Court struck down the provision as unconstitutional, holding that it vested unlimited and untrammelled power in the Executive Magistrate without adequate judicial oversight.
  2. In Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court held that a blanket prohibition on all protests along a specific road went beyond what was permissible and directed authorities to create a regulated permission mechanism instead of an outright ban.
  3. The statutory framework underlying this provision requires that every order issued under it must lapse within two months, and courts have held that the provision cannot be repeatedly extended beyond this limit merely by mechanical re-issuance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In Babulal Parate v. State of Maharashtra (1961), the Supreme Court did NOT strike down Section 144 CrPC (the predecessor to BNSS Section 163) as unconstitutional. Instead, it upheld the constitutional validity of the provision, while stressing that the power can be invoked only in genuine emergencies to prevent specific threats to public order and is not 'unlimited or untrammelled'. The falsity in Statement 1 lies in inverting the Court's holding — the Court validated the section but conditioned its exercise, it did not invalidate it. Statement 2 is correct. In Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court set aside a National Green Tribunal order that had banned all protests along Jantar Mantar Road. The Court held that a blanket prohibition went further than necessary and directed authorities to frame a regulated permission mechanism — the solution was not to ban demonstrations altogether but to manage them through a structured framework. Statement 3 is correct. The statutory design of Section 144 CrPC (now BNSS Section 163) limits each order to a maximum duration of two months, after which it must lapse. The Delhi High Court in the Bhanwar Singh case specifically held that Section 144 'cannot be repeatedly extended' and must lapse within this statutory period. Empirical research on Delhi's orders found that almost every order was mechanically re-issued the moment the two-month limit expired — a practice courts have flagged as contrary to the provision's character as an exceptional, time-limited emergency power.

After five

Sign in for the rest of the day’s questions.

An account scores your answers, keeps your mistakes so you can practise them again, fills in the progress tree below, and lets you practise by topic.

Sign in

Days with questions

Earlier days →