This screen only · back to Hindi on the next

UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 29 October 2026

Published

The news and its questions

Five free, with explanations

Monetary policy · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureMint29 October

Economy can sustain high-growth trajectory in FY27, recent GST reforms to help: Finmin review ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding India's monetary policy and inflation management framework:Answer ▾
  1. RBI's inflation target band — 2% to 6% CPI, with 4% as the midpoint
  2. Repo rate stance shift — From 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening' following a rate hike
  3. Imported inflation buffer — RBI supplying direct dollar liquidity to private-sector banks

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Under the RBI Act (as amended in 2016), the flexible inflation targeting framework sets the CPI inflation target at 4%, with a tolerance band of 2–6% — the floor at 2% and ceiling at 6% are well-established in India's monetary policy architecture. Pair 2 is correctly matched: When the RBI shifts its monetary policy stance from 'neutral' to 'calibrated tightening', it signals that while rate hikes remain on the table, rate cuts are off the table for the immediate future — a nuanced posture distinct from outright 'tightening'. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: To buffer extreme exchange rate volatility and mitigate imported inflation risks, the RBI supplied direct dollar liquidity to public-sector oil-marketing companies (OMCs), not to private-sector banks. Oil-marketing companies are the key channel because they are among the largest buyers of foreign exchange in India, and dollar supply to them directly reduces pressure on the rupee from oil import payments.

UNFCCC and the Paris Agreement · GS-II

EnvironmentThe Hindu29 October

Heat-related deaths up 36% since Paris Agreement as climate action lags: Lancet ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement (2015) and its mitigation and adaptation framework:Answer ▾
  1. Unlike the Kyoto Protocol, which imposed legally binding emission-reduction targets only on Annex I (developed) countries, the Paris Agreement introduced a bottom-up architecture of Nationally Determined Contributions applicable to all Parties.
  2. Under the Paris Agreement framework, adaptation finance for developing countries is treated as an obligation on developed-country Parties that is fully met once any amount is committed, with no requirement to match the adaptation needs quantified by developing countries themselves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) operated on a top-down, legally binding architecture that imposed quantified emission-reduction commitments exclusively on Annex I Parties (developed countries and economies in transition), using flexible mechanisms such as the Clean Development Mechanism, Joint Implementation, and Emissions Trading. The Paris Agreement (2015) fundamentally shifted this by introducing Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) — a bottom-up, nationally self-determined approach — under which all Parties, including developing countries like India and China, are required to prepare, communicate, and maintain successive NDCs. India submitted its first NDC in 2016 and an updated NDC in 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Paris Agreement does not treat adaptation finance as an obligation discharged by any quantum of commitment. On the contrary, the Lancet Countdown evidence — consistent with the Paris Agreement's adaptation finance provisions — illustrates a persistent and substantial financing gap: developing countries have quantified their health adaptation needs at a minimum of $3.3 billion per year, yet only around one-third of this declared need was actually committed in 2024. The Agreement calls on developed Parties to mobilise finance to support developing countries' adaptation efforts, with the expectation that the scale of finance should correspond to needs — not merely that some finance is provided. The statement mischaracterises the framework as satisfied by any commitment regardless of adequacy, which inverts the adaptation finance obligation under Paris.

Farm prices · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureThe Hindu29 October

Nandini milk prices to go up by ₹8 per litre from November 1 as Cabinet gives nod for hike ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding dairy cooperative models and their associated features in India:Answer ▾
  1. Anand Pattern — A three-tier cooperative structure linking village-level societies, district unions, and a state federation for milk procurement and marketing
  2. Karnataka Milk Federation (KMF/Nandini) — A state-level apex dairy cooperative federation that sets procurement prices paid to milk-producing farmers and retails milk to consumers
  3. Farm-gate (procurement) price — The price at which a dairy cooperative purchases raw milk directly from farmers, which is typically lower than the consumer retail price

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

All three pairs are correctly matched. The 'Anand Pattern,' pioneered through Amul in Anand (Gujarat) under Verghese Kurien, is a three-tier cooperative structure: village-level dairy cooperative societies collect milk from farmers; district-level milk unions process and market it; and a state-level federation handles branding and bulk marketing. Karnataka Milk Federation (KMF), which markets milk under the 'Nandini' brand, replicates this Anand Pattern at the state level — it is the apex body that aggregates milk from district unions and sets the procurement price paid to farmers, while also fixing the retail (consumer) price. The farm-gate or procurement price is structurally lower than the consumer retail price, with the difference covering processing, logistics, packaging, cooperative overhead, and a margin. In the Karnataka case discussed in public discourse, out of an ₹8/litre retail price hike, ₹7 was directed to the farmer (procurement price increase) and ₹1 was retained by cooperatives for expenses — illustrating exactly this procurement-vs-retail price gap and pass-through mechanism.

Election Commission of India · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained29 October

Ballot papers in Indian elections: Where are they still used, and why ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding electoral methods used in India and the authority/constitutional provision governing them:Answer ▾
  1. Elections to Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishads) — Conducted through Single Transferable Vote as mandated by Article 171 of the Constitution
  2. Elections to Municipal Corporations and Urban Local Bodies — Conducted under the jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India
  3. Rajya Sabha elections — Conducted through Single Transferable Vote using an open ballot with preferences marked on ballot papers

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Article 171 of the Constitution mandates that elections to Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishads) be conducted through the Single Transferable Vote system, which requires voters to mark preferences (first, second, etc.) on ballot papers rather than using EVMs. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: elections to municipal corporations and urban local bodies fall within the purview of State Election Commissions (SECs), not the Election Commission of India. SECs are constitutionally independent bodies empowered to superintend, direct, and control elections to urban and rural local bodies; they can decide whether to use EVMs or ballot papers. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rajya Sabha elections are indeed conducted through the Single Transferable Vote system, where Members of Legislative Assemblies mark their preferences on ballot papers in an open ballot process, and a quota formula determines the winning threshold.

Article 370 and J&K statehood · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained29 October

How the Indian Army secured Srinagar airport during the 1947 Kashmir invasion ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Instrument of Accession signed by Maharaja Hari Singh and the integration of princely states in 1947:Answer ▾
  1. Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947, princely states were given the option to accede to either India or Pakistan, with the lapse of British paramountcy leaving them technically independent until they chose to accede.
  2. The Instrument of Accession executed by Jammu and Kashmir ceded full sovereignty over all subjects to the Government of India, including internal administration and residuary powers.
  3. A standstill agreement, distinct from an Instrument of Accession, was designed to maintain existing administrative and communication arrangements between a princely state and a Dominion without constituting accession.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 terminated British paramountcy over the princely states, leaving them legally independent. States could then accede to India or Pakistan by signing an Instrument of Accession. Until they did so, they were technically sovereign entities — which is why both India and Pakistan had to negotiate with rulers like Hari Singh. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Instrument of Accession signed by the princely states — including J&K — was deliberately limited in scope. It covered only three subjects: Defence, External Affairs, and Communications. The acceding state retained its own constitution, internal autonomy, and residuary powers over all other subjects. J&K did NOT cede full or unlimited sovereignty to India through the Instrument; this limited nature of the accession is precisely what gave rise to special provisions for J&K in subsequent constitutional arrangements. Stating that it 'ceded full sovereignty over all subjects' fundamentally mischaracterises the instrument. Statement 3 is correct. A standstill agreement was a separate, transitional arrangement — distinct from accession — whereby a princely state and a Dominion agreed to continue existing administrative, postal, telegraph, and supply links that had previously operated under British India. Pakistan signed such a standstill agreement with J&K; India did not. The standstill agreement carried no political implication of accession; it merely preserved the status quo in practical governance terms while the final question of accession remained open.

After five

Sign in for the rest of the day’s questions.

An account scores your answers, keeps your mistakes so you can practise them again, fills in the progress tree below, and lets you practise by topic.

Sign in

Days with questions

Earlier days →