UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 4 November 2026

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Five free, with explanations

Freedom of religion, Articles 25–28 · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceThe Hindu4 November

Supreme Court stays Madras HC order on Chidambaram temple ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding constitutional and legal concepts relating to the administration of religious institutions in India:Answer ▾
  1. Article 26 of the Constitution — Right of a religious denomination to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health
  2. Parens patriae jurisdiction of courts over temples — Derived from the State's power to regulate economic, financial, and administrative activities of religious institutions under Article 25(2)(a)
  3. Deity as juristic person — Legal status that enables property rights and legal standing in courts on behalf of the idol, with the shebaits or managers acting as de facto managers

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Article 26 guarantees every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion and to administer property in accordance with law — this is correctly stated in Pair 1. However, Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: the parens patriae jurisdiction of courts over public temples is not derived from Article 25(2)(a), which is the State's power to throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus, or to regulate secular activities associated with religious practice. Parens patriae, as a doctrine, is an inherent equitable jurisdiction of the superior courts to protect those — including legal persons such as an idol — who cannot protect themselves; it is not a constitutional provision at all, and its source is common-law jurisprudence as adapted in Indian temple law. Pair 3 is correctly stated: under Indian law, a consecrated idol or deity is recognised as a juristic person capable of holding property and suing or being sued, with the shebait (trustee-manager) acting on its behalf in legal proceedings. This is a well-established position in cases such as Pramatha Nath Mullick v. Pradyumna Kumar Mullick (1925 PC) and subsequent Indian courts. Thus pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched while pair 2 misidentifies the constitutional source of the parens patriae doctrine.

Gadgil and Kasturirangan reports · GS-III

EnvironmentThe Hindu4 November

Micro and small development projects should continue in Western Ghats region: Agrometeorology Scientist ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding the two expert committees constituted on the Western Ghats and their key recommendations:Answer ▾
  1. Gadgil Committee (2011) — Recommended that the entire Western Ghats region be declared an Ecologically Sensitive Area, sub-divided into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones with graded restrictions on development
  2. Kasturirangan Committee (2013) — Recommended restricting ESA notification to approximately 37% of the Western Ghats (the 'natural landscape'), thereby permitting developmental activities in the remaining cultural landscape

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

The Gadgil Committee (Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel, 2011) recommended declaring the entire Western Ghats as an Ecologically Sensitive Area, dividing it into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ-1, ESZ-2, ESZ-3) with graded levels of restriction — the most stringent for the most ecologically sensitive parts. The Kasturirangan Committee (High Level Working Group, 2013), set up partly because Gadgil's recommendations were seen as too restrictive for communities and development, proposed a more limited demarcation: only about 37% of the Western Ghats — defined as the 'natural landscape' — would be notified as ESA, while the remaining 'cultural landscape' (comprising villages, agricultural land, plantation areas) would not be subject to ESA restrictions. This distinction between total ESA coverage (Gadgil) and partial natural-landscape coverage (Kasturirangan) is the central conceptual difference between the two reports, and the basis for the ongoing debate about permitting micro and small development projects in the Western Ghats.

US tariffs · GS-II

International RelationsIndian Express Explained4 November

Trump’s midterm defeat: Good news or fresh trouble for India’s trade deal? ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding US trade law provisions and their primary legal basis for action:Answer ▾
  1. Section 301 of the Trade Act, 1974 — Authorises tariffs or trade restrictions in response to unfair trade practices or 'overcapacity' by foreign countries
  2. Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act, 1962 — Authorises the President to restrict imports that threaten to impair US national security

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974 empowers the United States Trade Representative (USTR) to investigate and respond to foreign government actions, policies, or practices deemed 'unfair' — including dumping and industrial overcapacity — by imposing tariffs or other trade restrictions. It has been the primary instrument used in USTR investigations, including the 'overcapacity' investigations referenced in recent US trade actions against countries like India and China. Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962 gives the US President broad authority to impose import restrictions — including tariffs or quotas — on any good whose import volume or circumstances are found to threaten national security. It has been used, for example, to impose tariffs on steel and aluminium imports. Both pairs are correctly matched: Section 301 targets unfair foreign trade practices, while Section 232 targets national-security threats from imports. Understanding the distinction between these two provisions is critical because they differ in legal basis, the standard of proof required, and who exercises authority — USTR under Section 301, and the President (on the basis of a Commerce Department finding) under Section 232.

US tariffs · GS-II

International RelationsMint4 November

India sees some trade relief, new risks after US midterm vote ↗

Consider the following statements regarding US reciprocal tariff authority, secondary sanctions on Russian oil buyers, and their implications for India–US trade negotiations:Answer ▾
  1. The US President's power to unilaterally impose reciprocal tariffs is derived from the executive's inherent foreign-commerce authority and cannot be curtailed by Congressional legislation.
  2. US secondary sanctions targeting major buyers of Russian oil can be used as a form of trade leverage against countries like India even independently of formal reciprocal tariff authority.
  3. In India–US trade deal negotiations, a weakened presidential political position typically reduces pressure on the weaker party to accept unfavourable terms, as the executive's room for coercive unilateralism narrows.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The US President's power to impose reciprocal tariffs, while broad under statutes such as Section 232 (national security) and Section 301 (unfair trade practices) of relevant US trade laws, is a statutorily delegated power — not an inherent plenary authority immune to Congressional action. Congressional oversight and legislation can constrain, modify, or revoke such delegated tariff powers. This is a core feature of the US constitutional separation of powers: trade regulation is an enumerated Congressional power (Article I, Section 8 of the US Constitution), and what Congress delegates it can constrain or reclaim. Statement 2 is correct. The US has enacted legislation authorising secondary sanctions on major purchasers of Russian energy — meaning countries like India, which import significant volumes of Russian oil, face the risk of tariff-based penalties (up to very high rates) under such sanctions law. This is a distinct legal instrument from general reciprocal tariff authority; it gives the executive leverage over Indian trade even when broader unilateral tariff powers face Congressional pushback. Statement 3 is correct. In asymmetric bilateral trade negotiations, a politically weakened executive on the stronger side tends to reduce its coercive leverage — the interlocutor state faces less compulsion to accept unfavourable terms quickly. A US President constrained by Congressional oversight or diminished political capital has fewer credible threats to deploy, giving the other party (here, India) more negotiating space and time.

Green fuels · GS-III

EnvironmentThe Hindu4 November

North Africa’s green hydrogen exports to Europe could harm water supply and marine life: study ↗

Consider the following statements regarding green hydrogen production and its associated environmental constraints:Answer ▾
  1. Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis, a process that splits water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen using electricity derived from renewable sources such as solar or wind power.
  2. The primary end-use sectors for green hydrogen are electricity generation and residential heating, as industrial sectors like steel manufacturing and chemical refining predominantly rely on grey hydrogen.
  3. A fundamental tension in siting green hydrogen production in arid regions is that the zones with the highest renewable energy potential are often those with the most acute freshwater scarcity, creating a water-energy nexus constraint.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: green hydrogen is produced via electrolysis, wherein renewable electricity (from solar, wind, etc.) is used to split water (H₂O) into hydrogen and oxygen. This distinguishes it from grey hydrogen (produced from fossil fuels) or blue hydrogen (fossil-fuel-derived but with carbon capture). Statement 2 is incorrect: green hydrogen's primary targeted end-use sectors are industrial — steel manufacturing, chemical refining — and hard-to-abate transport sectors such as maritime shipping, aviation, and long-haul trucking. Electricity generation and residential heating are not the primary envisaged markets; in fact, direct electrification is generally more efficient for those end-uses. Statement 3 is correct: the water-energy nexus is a core constraint — the regions best endowed with solar and wind resources (arid, sun-rich zones) are frequently those with the least freshwater availability. This creates a structural trade-off: producing green hydrogen at scale in such regions requires either large volumes of freshwater (scarce locally) or energy-intensive desalination of seawater, each carrying ecological costs.

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