Consider the following statements regarding India's Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and preferential trade partnerships:Answer ▾
India's FTA with the United Arab Emirates and the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) both entered into force in 2022.
The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the same grouping as the European Union, and India's FTA with EFTA therefore grants preferential access to the EU single market.
India has concluded negotiations on a trade agreement with the European Union, while also pursuing a partnership with the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is D
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India's trade agreements with the United Arab Emirates (the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, CEPA) and with Australia (ECTA) both entered into force in 2022, marking the beginning of India's revived FTA push. Statement 2 is a conceptual error: the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) — comprising Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein — is a distinct body from the European Union. An FTA with EFTA does not grant preferential access to the EU's single market; they are separate trade blocs with separate memberships and governance structures. Statement 3 is correct: India has concluded FTA negotiations with the European Union and has separately been seeking a trade agreement with the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), both as part of its expanding trade diplomacy.
Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional framework governing reservation and the 50% ceiling established in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992):Answer ▾
The Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney held that the 50% ceiling on reservations under Articles 15 and 16 is a binding constitutional principle reflecting the balance between equality of opportunity and affirmative action, not merely a rule of prudence.
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment, which introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), obliterated the 50% ceiling by creating a separate constitutional space, thereby permitting States to expand reservations for backward classes beyond 50% through ordinary legislation.
The Indra Sawhney judgment recognised that in exceptional circumstances relating to remote and geographically isolated communities, States may exceed the 50% ceiling, but only after obtaining Presidential assent under Article 340.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The Indra Sawhney ruling established that the 50% ceiling on reservations is a binding constitutional principle — not a mere policy guideline — that embodies the constitutional balance between equality of opportunity (Articles 14, 16(1)) and affirmative action (Articles 15(4), 16(4)). It circumscribes state power regardless of the numerical strength of backward classes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment (2019), which inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) to provide 10% EWS reservation, explicitly carved the EWS quota out of the general merit pool — it operates as a separate, additional category and was expressly designed not to disturb the existing reservation structure. Courts have clarified that this amendment does not obliterate the Indra Sawhney 50% ceiling applicable to SC/ST/OBC reservations, nor does it grant States legislative freedom to push backward-class reservation beyond 50%.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Indra Sawhney did contemplate that exceptional circumstances (such as for extraordinary backwardness among communities in remote areas) could justify exceeding 50%, but this is an extremely narrow and judicially supervised exception — it does not follow the procedure of Presidential assent under Article 340 (which relates to appointment of a backward-classes commission). No such blanket route via Article 340 exists for piercing the ceiling; courts have consistently struck down attempts to exceed 50% by ordinary state legislation without meeting the exceptional-circumstances threshold.
Consider the following statements regarding leprosy and India's public health framework for neglected tropical diseases:Answer ▾
Leprosy is classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) and delayed diagnosis can have implications beyond the individual patient, including continued community transmission.
Primary healthcare strengthening — through trained frontline workers, clear referral pathways, and teledermatology — is considered a complementary strategy to specialist training for addressing dermatological care gaps in underserved areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is B
Explanation
Leprosy is indeed classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) under the WHO framework. Because it is caused by a communicable pathogen (Mycobacterium leprae), delayed diagnosis allows the disease to progress in the individual and also risks further transmission in the community — making timely identification a public-health concern, not just a clinical one. Statement 1 is therefore correct. Statement 2 reflects a well-established principle in India's public-health discourse: given the severe shortage of dermatologists relative to population need, training primary-care physicians and health workers, establishing referral pathways, and deploying teledermatology are seen as essential complements — not substitutes — to specialist training, precisely because specialist numbers alone cannot close the access gap. This is consistent with National Health Policy goals around primary healthcare strengthening and task-shifting. Statement 2 is also correct.
Consider the following pairs regarding AI governance concepts and their descriptions:Answer ▾
IMF AI Preparedness Index — a measure of a country's readiness to harness AI, covering infrastructure, regulation, and human capital dimensions
Labour productivity — the output produced per unit of labour input, which AI is projected to raise by augmenting workers' task performance
Generative AI first-order exposure — jobs where AI fully replaces all human roles without any scope for human-AI collaboration
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is B
Explanation
The IMF AI Preparedness Index is an established measure that assesses how ready a country is to adopt and benefit from AI — encompassing infrastructure, legal frameworks, human capital, and institutional capacity. India's score on this index is significantly below that of the United States, which constrains its potential growth dividend from AI. Labour productivity is correctly described: AI raises output per worker by helping workers complete tasks more efficiently, not by eliminating labour wholesale. The third pair is incorrect because 'first-order exposure to generative AI' refers specifically to jobs where workers can perform their existing tasks more efficiently with the help of chatbots or AI tools — it is an augmentation concept, not a displacement concept. It does not mean AI fully replaces all human roles; rather, it identifies occupations where AI can assist workers in doing their work better. The conflation of 'exposure' with 'full replacement' is a common misconception in AI governance discourse.
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and India's inflation targeting framework:Answer ▾
The MPC is constituted under the RBI Act, 1934, and is mandated to set the policy repo rate with the primary objective of maintaining price stability, targeting a CPI inflation rate of 4% with a tolerance band of ±2%.
The inflation target of 4% (with the ±2% band) is set unilaterally by the RBI's Central Board of Directors and does not require any government notification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The MPC was constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 (inserted by the 2016 amendment), with the mandate to maintain price stability while keeping growth in mind. Its primary tool is setting the policy repo rate. The inflation target is 4% CPI with a lower tolerance of 2% and an upper tolerance of 6% (i.e., ±2% band). Statement 2 is incorrect. The inflation target is NOT set unilaterally by the RBI's Central Board of Directors. Under the RBI Act (Section 45ZA), the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target by notification, and this target is reviewed every five years. The Central Board governs RBI's general operations and has a distinct mandate; it does not set the inflation target. This is a key constitutional-legal distinction between the MPC's rate-setting role and the government's target-setting role.
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