Consider the following statements regarding the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), its statutory basis, and the Air Quality Index (AQI) framework:Answer ▾
The CPCB was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 extended its mandate to include air-quality functions without creating a separate body.
Under the CPCB's AQI classification, an index value of 301–400 falls in the 'very poor' category, while values above 400 up to 500 constitute the 'severe' category.
PM2.5 is classified as a 'coarse' particulate matter because its aerodynamic diameter exceeds 10 micrometres, making it the primary pollutant of concern in urban air quality monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The CPCB was constituted under Section 3 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 did not create a new body — it extended the mandate of the already-existing CPCB to cover air pollution as well, adding air-quality functions under Section 16 of the Air Act. This is a commonly confused point: the Air Act broadened CPCB's scope but is not its founding statute.
Statement 2 is correct. The CPCB's AQI scale runs from 0–500 and is divided into six bands. The 'very poor' band spans values from 301 to 400, and 'severe' covers 401 to 500. An AQI at or above 401 triggers the most stringent pollution-management responses under frameworks such as GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan).
Statement 3 is incorrect. PM2.5 refers to fine particulate matter with an aerodynamic diameter of 2.5 micrometres or less — not coarse particles. It is precisely because PM2.5 particles are so fine that they penetrate deep into the lungs and even enter the bloodstream, making them far more hazardous than coarser PM10 particles. PM2.5 is the predominant pollutant of concern in Delhi's urban air quality, particularly during winter and firecracker-related episodes.
Consider the following statements regarding the composition of India's foreign exchange reserves and the RBI's foreign exchange market interventions:Answer ▾
Foreign currency assets, the largest component of India's forex reserves, can change in reported dollar value not only due to actual purchase or sale of dollars but also due to movements in the exchange rates of non-dollar currencies such as the euro, pound and yen held by the RBI.
India's reserve tranche position with the IMF and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are distinct components of India's foreign exchange reserves, separate from foreign currency assets and gold.
When the RBI sells dollars in the currency market to support the rupee, this operation increases the stock of foreign currency reserves by injecting liquidity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is B
Explanation
India's foreign exchange reserves have four components: foreign currency assets (the largest share), gold reserves, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) allocated by the IMF, and India's reserve tranche position with the IMF. Statement 1 is correct: foreign currency assets are held in multiple currencies (euro, pound, yen, etc.), so their reported dollar value fluctuates with exchange rate movements even when no actual dollar transactions occur — a decline in reported value does not necessarily equal actual dollar sales. Statement 2 is correct: SDRs and the reserve tranche position with the IMF are indeed separate, distinct components of India's overall forex reserves alongside foreign currency assets and gold — this is the standard four-part composition framework for any country's reserves as defined by the IMF. Statement 3 is incorrect: when the RBI sells dollars in the market to defend the rupee, it draws down its own stock of foreign currency reserves — this reduces, not increases, the reserve level. The purpose is to absorb excess rupee-selling pressure, but the cost is a fall in the reserve buffer.
Consider the following pairs regarding El Niño's effects and their mechanisms as observed in Indian agriculture and allied sectors:Answer ▾
El Niño — Associated with warmer sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific, leading to suppressed monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent
Delayed flush season in dairy — Caused by fodder scarcity and elevated cattle water stress resulting from higher temperatures and irregular rainfall
ENSO teleconnection — The atmospheric bridge through which sea surface temperature anomalies in the Pacific Ocean influence weather patterns in distant regions including South Asia
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is B
Explanation
All three pairs are correctly matched. El Niño is characterised by anomalously warm sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific; this warming weakens the Walker Circulation, which typically suppresses convection over the Indian Ocean and reduces monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent — a well-established teleconnection documented by the India Meteorological Department and global climate science. The delayed dairy flush season in India is a downstream agricultural consequence: El Niño-driven temperature rise and irregular rainfall shrink fodder availability and intensify cattle water stress, which suppresses milk yields and shifts the peak supply period later in the season. ENSO teleconnection is the precise scientific concept describing how the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in the Pacific remotely drives weather anomalies — rainfall deficits, heat waves, dry spells — across South Asia, East Africa, and other distant regions through atmospheric circulation bridges. Each pair correctly links the phenomenon to its established mechanism.
Consider the following statements regarding the role of biological inputs — biofertilisers, microbial inoculants and biostimulants — in managing abiotic stress in rabi crops:Answer ▾
Phosphate-solubilising and potassium-mobilising microbes enhance nutrient-use efficiency primarily by synthesising new nutrients from atmospheric inputs, rather than releasing nutrients already bound in the soil.
ACC-deaminase-producing bacterial strains help maintain photosynthetic activity during drought stress by reducing the accumulation of ethylene, the hormone that otherwise accelerates leaf senescence.
Biostimulants derived from seaweed or plant extracts can mitigate heat and drought stress in part by upregulating the plant's antioxidant enzyme system, including superoxide dismutase and catalase, which neutralise reactive oxygen species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is B
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. Phosphate-solubilising and potassium-mobilising microbes do not synthesise nutrients from scratch; their documented mode of action is to release nutrients that are already bound in an unavailable form in the soil — a process of mobilisation or solubilisation, not de-novo synthesis. This distinction is fundamental to understanding how biofertilisers differ from synthetic fertilisers. Statement 2 is correct. Under drought stress, plants produce elevated ethylene, which triggers premature leaf senescence and curtails photosynthesis during the critical grain-filling period. ACC-deaminase is an enzyme produced by certain rhizobacteria that degrades the ethylene precursor ACC (1-aminocyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid), thereby lowering ethylene levels and prolonging canopy photosynthetic activity. Statement 3 is correct. A well-established mechanism by which biostimulants — including seaweed-derived and botanical extracts — confer abiotic stress tolerance is by upregulating the plant's own antioxidant defence enzymes (superoxide dismutase, catalase, peroxidase), which scavenge the reactive oxygen species (ROS) burst triggered by heat and drought. Accumulation of compatible solutes such as proline and glycine betaine further stabilises cell membranes under water deficit. Both mechanisms are part of the documented biochemical rationale for using biostimulants in stress-prone Rabi seasons.
Consider the following statements regarding the factors that enable a single region to capture a dominant share of global production in a particular industry, as illustrated by industrial cluster concentration in global supply chains:Answer ▾
Low capital intensity in production — meaning the industry does not require sophisticated or expensive machinery — reduces barriers to entry for labour-intensive clusters and helps them retain cost competitiveness against capital-rich rivals.
Strong anchor domestic demand from recurring cultural or seasonal events can sustain a production cluster through multiple sales cycles annually, providing stable revenue independent of export market fluctuations.
Regulatory arbitrage — where a cluster operates under comparatively lax safety or environmental standards relative to competitors in advanced economies — acts as a structural cost disadvantage because it raises insurance and compliance liabilities for producers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect. The answer is B
Explanation
Industrial cluster concentration in global supply chains is driven by several reinforcing factors. Statement 1 is correct: low capital intensity means firms do not need expensive machinery, so the cluster's advantage rests on abundant, low-cost labour rather than on technology that advanced rivals can easily replicate — this is a genuine structural cost advantage. Statement 2 is also correct: recurring domestic demand anchored in cultural events (such as festivals and national holidays) generates multiple demand cycles within a year, stabilising revenues for producers and reinforcing the cluster's scale economies. Statement 3 is incorrect in its conclusion: regulatory arbitrage — operating under comparatively lax safety or environmental regulations — acts as a structural cost *advantage* for the cluster, not a disadvantage. It lowers compliance costs relative to producers in jurisdictions with stricter standards, enabling the cluster to price more competitively internationally. The fact that it raises safety risks is a social concern, but from a purely cost-competitiveness standpoint it is a factor that *reduces* the cluster's costs, not raises them. This is a standard concept in the economics of industrial location: regions with lighter regulatory burdens attract labour-intensive, hazardous-process industries because the cost of regulation is effectively subsidised by lower enforcement, conferring a price edge over Western competitors.
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