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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 9 August 2026

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Five free, with explanations

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained9 August

Maharashtra allows some homeopathic doctors to prescribe modern drugs: Reasons, pitfalls ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework governing medical practice and the constitutional division of powers over medical education in India:Answer ▾
  1. Coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions falls under Entry 66 of the Union List, which is why changes to the curriculum of central councils regulating medical systems (such as Homeopathy or Ayurveda) require central-level approval rather than state-level approval.
  2. Under the current national framework, a practitioner registered in the Register of Indian Medicine (covering Ayurveda, Siddha, or Unani) is permitted to practise allopathy, since the Supreme Court in Dr. Mukhtiar Chand vs. State of Punjab held that such cross-practice is a recognised constitutional right of registered practitioners.
  3. The National Commission for Homeopathy functions as the central statutory body regulating homeopathy education and practice standards in India, and its position is that homeopathic practitioners should not prescribe allopathic medicines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Entry 66 of the Union List covers coordination and determination of standards in higher and technical education, which is the constitutional basis for central councils (such as the National Commission for Homeopathy) having authority over curriculum standards. This is why homeopathy colleges in Maharashtra could not unilaterally change their courses to include modern pharmacology — approval had to come from the central council, not just the state government or state council. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court in Dr. Mukhtiar Chand vs. State of Punjab held precisely the opposite — it ruled that there is no scope for a person enrolled in the state or central Register of Indian Medicine to practise allopathy. Far from being a constitutional right, cross-practice ('mixopathy') has been explicitly disallowed by the Supreme Court in multiple rulings. Statement 3 is correct. The National Commission for Homeopathy (NCH) is the central statutory body for homeopathy regulation, and its stated position — as reflected in the statements of its chairperson — is that homeopaths should practise only within their own system and should not prescribe allopathic medicines.

International RelationsPIB Hindi9 August

भारतीय प्रतिस्पर्धा आयोग (सीसीआई) ने ब्रिक्स प्रतिस्पर्धा प्राधिकरणों के प्रमुखों की बैठक आयोजित की ↗

Consider the following statements regarding BRICS and India's role in the grouping:Answer ▾
  1. India is a founding member of BRICS with full membership rights, including voting and agenda-setting, unlike its observer status in bodies such as the Arctic Council.
  2. BRICS functions as a formal intergovernmental organisation with a permanent secretariat, and its summit decisions are legally binding on member states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. India is one of the five founding members of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa), holding full membership with voting rights, agenda-setting participation, and the rotating Presidency — as demonstrated by India's chairship in 2026. This contrasts with India's observer status in bodies like the Arctic Council (since 2013) or its dialogue-partner role in ASEAN, where it carries no formal voting or treaty obligations. Statement 2 is incorrect. BRICS is not a formal intergovernmental organisation with a permanent secretariat; it is an informal multilateral forum or grouping. Unlike the United Nations, WTO, or IMF, BRICS has no treaty-based charter, no standing secretariat, and its summit declarations and communiqués are politically significant but not legally binding on member states. The New Development Bank is a separate legal entity created by BRICS members, but it does not constitute a BRICS secretariat. Confusing BRICS's informal forum status with the binding institutional architecture of formal IOs is a common error.

Science & TechPIB9 August

India to be an essential player in the next industrial revolution which will be biotechnology and AI driven: Dr Jitendra Singh ↗

Consider the following pairs matching India's frontier technology policy initiatives with their stated focus areas:Answer ▾
  1. BioE3 Policy — Biotechnology for Economy, Employment and Environment
  2. National Quantum Mission — Artificial Intelligence research and deployment
  3. India AI Mission — Promoting AI adoption across sectors

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

BioE3 is India's dedicated biotechnology policy — its full form, Biotechnology for Economy, Employment and Environment, is its defining mandate, making Pair 1 correct. The National Quantum Mission is India's initiative focused on quantum technology (quantum computing, quantum communication, and related research), NOT artificial intelligence — AI is a separate domain addressed by the India AI Mission. Conflating quantum computing with AI is a common misconception; they are distinct frontier technologies with separate policy frameworks. Pair 2 is therefore incorrectly matched. The India AI Mission is indeed India's dedicated initiative for artificial intelligence, making Pair 3 correct. Together, these three — BioE3, National Quantum Mission, and India AI Mission — represent India's suite of frontier technology policy instruments.

UNFCCC and the Paris Agreement · GS-II

EnvironmentPIB9 August

India Achieves Landmark 300 GW Non-Fossil Fuel Power Capacity ↗

Consider the following statements regarding India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement and the country's renewable energy transition framework:Answer ▾
  1. India's updated NDC includes a target to achieve approximately 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based electricity generation capacity by 2030, which forms part of India's commitment to the Paris Agreement.
  2. Under the Paris Agreement framework, India's NDC target on non-fossil fuel capacity is a legally binding obligation enforceable by an international tribunal established under the Agreement.
  3. Nuclear power is counted as part of India's non-fossil fuel electricity capacity, alongside solar, wind, hydro, and bio-power, for the purpose of tracking progress towards the 500 GW NDC target.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. India's updated NDC submitted under the Paris Agreement explicitly includes the goal of achieving about 500 GW of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. This is a well-known plank of India's climate diplomacy and energy transition roadmap. Statement 2 is incorrect and represents a common misconception. The Paris Agreement is structured around nationally determined contributions and operates on a 'pledge and review' architecture — NDCs are nationally determined and politically binding in character, not legally enforceable by any international tribunal. The Paris Agreement contains no enforcement mechanism or international adjudicatory body that can compel compliance with specific NDC targets. Statement 3 is correct. India's definition of non-fossil fuel capacity includes nuclear power alongside solar, wind, large and small hydro, and bio-power. Nuclear energy produces no direct carbon dioxide emissions and is consistently counted within the non-fossil fuel basket when India reports progress toward its 500 GW NDC target. This is a conceptually important distinction because nuclear power, though not a 'renewable' in the strict sense, is classified as non-fossil for climate accounting purposes.

Food safety regulation under FSSAI and the FSS Act, 2006 · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceThe Hindu9 August

Health department forms 30 special teams to inspect hotels, restaurants, food outlets across Bengaluru ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) and the statutory framework under which it operates:Answer ▾
  1. FSSAI is a constitutional body established under Article 47 of the Constitution, which directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and improve public health.
  2. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 empowers FSSAI to prescribe inspection checklists for food establishments, and legal action for violations can be initiated under both the Act and the Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011.
  3. Adjudication of penalties for violations under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 is conducted by an Adjudicating Officer, not directly by FSSAI itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is false. FSSAI is a statutory body, not a constitutional body. It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 — an ordinary Act of Parliament. Article 47 of the Constitution is a Directive Principle of State Policy that directs the State to improve nutrition and public health, but it does not itself create FSSAI or any regulatory authority. Because FSSAI is a creature of statute, it can be abolished or restructured by parliamentary legislation alone, without any constitutional amendment — which is the hallmark distinction between statutory and constitutional bodies. Statement 2 is correct. The FSS Act, 2006 empowers FSSAI to prescribe regulatory standards and inspection protocols for food businesses. Legal action for violations can be initiated under both the parent Act and the subordinate Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011 — a standard two-tier enforcement architecture where the Rules operationalise the parent Act's mandate. Statement 3 is correct. The FSS Act, 2006 provides a quasi-judicial adjudication mechanism: penalties for violations are assessed by a designated Adjudicating Officer, not by FSSAI's inspection teams themselves. This separation between the inspecting authority and the adjudicating authority is a structural feature of the Act's enforcement design, ensuring procedural fairness.

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