UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 1 November 2026

Published

The news and its questions

Five free, with explanations

Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) · GS-II

Polity & GovernancePIB1 November

Digi Yatra Begins International Passenger Trials at Seven Airports ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding key features of Digi Yatra's decentralised, self-sovereign identity model under India's Digital Public Infrastructure framework:Answer ▾
  1. Verifiable Credential (VC) — A digitally signed, machine-readable attestation of identity held in the user's own device wallet, not stored centrally by the government
  2. Near Field Communication (NFC) in e-passport context — A short-range wireless protocol used to read the encrypted chip embedded in the e-passport to authenticate the document's genuineness
  3. Self-sovereign identity model — An architecture in which a central authority manages and shares the user's identity data with service providers on the user's behalf

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is C

Explanation

A Verifiable Credential (VC) is a W3C-standard construct — a cryptographically signed digital attestation that the holder keeps in their own device wallet. The key feature is that the credential is device-resident and user-controlled, not held by a centralised government server; this is precisely what makes the model 'self-sovereign.' NFC (Near Field Communication) is a short-range radio-frequency technology used to read the encrypted chip in an e-passport; this chip contains biographic data and a digital signature issued by the issuing government, allowing software to verify that the passport has not been tampered with. Both pairs 1 and 2 are therefore correctly described. Pair 3, however, inverts the defining principle of self-sovereign identity (SSI). Under SSI, the user — not a central authority — controls and selectively discloses their identity data. A model in which a central authority manages and shares user data on the user's behalf is the traditional federated-identity or centralised model, which is the conceptual opposite of SSI. Because pair 3 mischaracterises SSI as a centralised architecture, it is incorrectly matched, making '1 and 2 only' the correct answer.

Endangered wildlife · GS-III

EnvironmentIndian Express Explained1 November

Why can’t satellite collars live-track cheetahs? Kuno director explains ↗

Consider the following statements regarding Project Cheetah, the legal status of Kuno National Park, and IUCN guidelines on species reintroduction:Answer ▾
  1. The cheetahs being introduced under Project Cheetah belong to the African cheetah subspecies (Acinonyx jubatus jubatus) sourced from Namibia and South Africa, as the Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus), which once roamed the Indian subcontinent, is now critically endangered and confined to Iran.
  2. Kuno is designated a National Park under Section 35 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which gives it the highest protection category under Indian domestic law, where no human activity including grazing is ordinarily permitted inside the core.
  3. Under IUCN guidelines for conservation translocations, the ongoing cheetah project at Kuno qualifies as a 'reintroduction' in the strict technical sense, because the species is being restored within its historical Indian range using individuals of the same subspecies that was historically resident.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian cheetah (Asiatic subspecies, Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) was declared extinct in India in 1952. Because no viable Asiatic cheetah population exists in the wild outside Iran, Project Cheetah sources African cheetahs (A. j. jubatus) from Namibia and South Africa — a fact confirmed by the presence of South African cheetahs at Kuno under the reintroduction programme. Statement 2 is correct. Kuno was upgraded from a Wildlife Sanctuary to a National Park in 2018 and is governed under Section 35 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. National Parks represent the strictest protected-area category under Indian law — no grazing, no human habitation, and no resource extraction is ordinarily permissible inside a National Park, making it suitable as an apex carnivore habitat. Statement 3 is incorrect. The IUCN (2013) Guidelines for Reintroductions and Other Conservation Translocations define a 'reintroduction' strictly as the intentional movement and release of an organism within its indigenous range from which it has disappeared, using individuals of the same (sub)species. Because the Indian cheetah was the Asiatic subspecies and the animals being brought in are the African subspecies, the Kuno project does not satisfy this strict definition. Under IUCN terminology, it would more accurately be classified as a 'conservation introduction' or 'assisted colonisation' — moving a taxon outside its indigenous range to achieve a conservation benefit. This distinction matters for evaluating whether the project meets international best-practice norms for wildlife reintroduction.

Renewable power, benefits and challenges · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureIndian Express Explained1 November

Why Sri Lanka’s recent blackout has lessons for India’s rooftop solar push ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding concepts central to integrating variable renewable energy into an electricity grid:Answer ▾
  1. Inverter ride-through settings — Ability of a rooftop solar inverter to remain connected to the grid during temporary voltage or frequency disturbances, rather than tripping immediately
  2. Under Frequency Load Shedding (UFLS) — A protection mechanism that automatically disconnects selected generation sources to increase supply and restore grid frequency
  3. Non-dispatchable generation — Power sources whose output depends on weather conditions and cannot be readily ramped up or down by grid operators

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: inverter ride-through settings (also called low-voltage and frequency ride-through) are configurations that allow rooftop solar inverters to stay connected to the grid during brief deviations in voltage or frequency, preventing a cascade of simultaneous disconnections that can deepen a generation deficit. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Under Frequency Load Shedding (UFLS) automatically disconnects selected electrical loads (i.e., demand/consumers), not generation sources, in order to reduce demand and thereby stabilise grid frequency when supply suddenly falls short. UFLS is a demand-side emergency tool, not a supply-side one. Pair 3 is correctly matched: non-dispatchable generation refers to renewable sources such as rooftop solar and wind whose output is weather-dependent and cannot be commanded to increase or decrease output in the way that conventional dispatchable plants (coal, hydro, gas) can be. The distinction between dispatchable and non-dispatchable generation is foundational to understanding grid frequency management challenges as India scales up rooftop solar.

Finance Commission and the devolution formula · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceMint1 November

States get addition instalment of tax devolution of ₹1.09 lakh crore, supported by strong economy, taxes—See break-up ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding the constitutional and statutory framework of tax devolution to States in India:Answer ▾
  1. Finance Commission — Constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to recommend the formula for sharing central taxes with States
  2. Tax devolution to States — Distribution of a specified share of the divisible pool of central taxes collected by the Union
  3. Article 275 of the Constitution — Constitutional provision under which the Finance Commission is constituted

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: the Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution. It is constituted every five years (or earlier) and its core mandate includes recommending the distribution of central taxes between the Union and the States. Pair 2 is correctly matched: tax devolution refers to the transfer of a specified share of the divisible pool of central taxes to the States. The divisible pool comprises most central taxes (excluding cesses and surcharges earmarked for specific purposes), and the Finance Commission recommends the percentage share — currently 41% — to be transferred. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Article 275 of the Constitution deals with grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to States, not with the constitution of the Finance Commission. Confusing Article 275 (grants-in-aid) with Article 280 (Finance Commission) is a common error; these are two distinct fiscal-federalism instruments — devolution is formula-based and mandatory, while grants-in-aid are discretionary supplements recommended by the Finance Commission for specific needs.

Fundamental Rights · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceIndian Express Explained1 November

INDIA bloc’s Ramlila Maidan rally: Do we need to ‘pay to protest’? ↗

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional and judicial framework governing the right to protest in India:Answer ▾
  1. The Constitution of India mandates that governments designate specific protest sites to give effect to the right to peaceful assembly under Article 19(1)(b).
  2. In Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court recognised the right to protest as sacrosanct in a democracy but held that it could be regulated through prior permissions including conditions on crowd size at designated sites.
  3. In Amit Sahni v. Commissioner of Police (2020), the Supreme Court held that the right to peaceful protest is absolute and cannot be curtailed even when it severely disrupts the daily lives of ordinary citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: designated protest sites are an administrative mechanism created by governments to balance competing rights — they have no constitutional or statutory mandate. The Constitution guarantees the right to peaceful assembly under Article 19(1)(b), but does not require governments to earmark specific sites; such sites are a convenience measure, not a constitutional prerequisite. Statement 2 is correct: in Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (2018), the Supreme Court upheld the right to protest as sacrosanct, set aside the National Green Tribunal's blanket ban on protests at Jantar Mantar, and designated it as a protest site subject to prior permissions — including conditions on crowd size — to be obtained from the administration to facilitate (not obstruct) protests. This reflects the classic Article 19(2) and 19(3) framework: the right is fundamental but subject to reasonable, proportionate regulation. Statement 3 is incorrect: in Amit Sahni (2020), the Shaheen Bagh case, the Supreme Court held precisely the opposite — the right to peaceful protest cannot be stretched to a point where it severely disrupts the daily lives of other citizens (such as commuters). The Court drew a clear line between protected protest and impermissible indefinite blockade of public thoroughfares, reinforcing that Article 19(1)(b) rights are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order and the rights of others.

Days with questions

Earlier days →