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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz, 17 October 2026

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Five free, with explanations

Election Commission of India · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceThe Hindu17 October

Comparing SIR 2002-04 and 2025-26 ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding the legal provisions governing elections and electoral rolls in India:Answer ▾
  1. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 — Power of the Election Commission of India to carry out a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency
  2. Article 324 of the Constitution of India — Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to Parliament and State Legislatures vested in the Election Commission
  3. Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 — Right of persons to vote in elections

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 explicitly authorises the Election Commission of India to conduct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency in such manner as it thinks fit — this is the statutory basis for exercises such as the Special Intensive Revision (SIR). Pair 2 is correctly matched: Article 324 of the Constitution vests superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission of India. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: the right of persons to vote is provided under Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (which governs the actual conduct of elections), not the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (which deals with electoral rolls and delimitation of constituencies). Confusing the two Acts of 1950 and 1951 is a common error — the 1950 Act covers qualification for and preparation of electoral rolls, while the 1951 Act covers the actual conduct of elections.

Freedom of religion, Articles 25–28 · GS-II

Polity & GovernanceThe Hindu17 October

J&K Waqf Board pushes for uniform Friday sermons, ‘preachers’ committee to decide topics in advance’ ↗

Consider the following pairs regarding the constitutional provisions under Articles 25–26 of the Constitution of India and their correct scope:Answer ▾
  1. Article 25 — Guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality and health, and to other Fundamental Rights
  2. Article 26 — Confers on every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, establish institutions, and administer property — but this right is NOT subject to public order, morality and health
  3. State regulation of the secular activities associated with religious practice — Permissible under Articles 25(2) and 26, but the state cannot directly prescribe the substantive content of religious sermons under the guise of managing 'secular' affairs

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is A

Explanation

Article 25 guarantees every person freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion — this right is expressly subject to public order, morality and health, and to the other provisions of Part III. Pair 1 is correctly matched. Article 26 gives every religious denomination (or any section thereof) the right to (a) establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, (b) manage its own affairs in matters of religion, (c) own and acquire movable and immovable property, and (d) administer such property in accordance with law. Critically, Article 26 IS subject to public order, morality and health (see the opening clause: 'Subject to public order, morality and health'). Pair 2 incorrectly states that Article 26 is NOT subject to these grounds — this is a substantive doctrinal error, making pair 2 incorrectly matched. Pair 3 captures a key constitutional distinction: the state (or a statutory body like a Waqf Board acting with state authority) may regulate the secular or administrative aspects of religious institutions, but prescribing the substantive doctrinal or homiletic content of sermons — what an Imam says at Friday prayers — directly touches 'matters of religion' protected under Article 26(b). Courts have consistently held that the line between 'religious' and 'secular' activities is critical: economic, commercial, or purely administrative functions of a religious body can be regulated; the core religious content cannot be dictated by the state. Pair 3 correctly captures this principle. Therefore, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Agri-processing · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureThe Hindu BusinessLine17 October

Why food processing is India’s real frontier in the fight against food waste ↗

Consider the following statements regarding India's food processing sector, the Mega Food Park scheme, and the PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) scheme:Answer ▾
  1. The Mega Food Park scheme is designed to create large-scale processing infrastructure, whereas PMFME targets the formalisation and upgrading of micro food processing enterprises, reflecting two structurally distinct approaches to reducing post-harvest losses.
  2. Cold chain infrastructure under PMFME is intended to replace Mega Food Parks as the government's primary instrument for value addition in the food processing sector.
  3. A critical structural limitation of micro food processing units is that formalisation alone — without assured market linkage, working capital support, and quality systems — is insufficient for their sustained viability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Mega Food Park scheme operates on a scale-based model — creating large, centralised processing infrastructure — while PMFME operates on a proximity-based model, formalising micro enterprises and supporting cold chain assets closer to farm clusters. These are two structurally distinct policy instruments with different theories of change, and both exist simultaneously in India's food processing policy landscape. Statement 2 is incorrect. Cold chain projects under PMFME are complementary to, not replacements for, Mega Food Parks. Both schemes run in parallel under the Ministry of Food Processing Industries; there is no government policy designating PMFME-linked cold chain as the 'primary' instrument while displacing Mega Food Parks. The two approaches address different gaps in the value chain. Statement 3 is correct. A well-established critique in food processing policy is that mere formalisation of micro units — registering them or bringing them under a regulatory framework — does not guarantee survival or impact. Without downstream market access, working capital, testing infrastructure, and quality compliance systems, a formalised micro unit typically fails within its early years. This reflects the broader principle that supply-side formalisation must be accompanied by demand-side and systemic support to be effective.

Crop improvement by breeding, biofortification and transgenics · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureThe Hindu BusinessLine17 October

Climate change is quietly lowering the nutrient content of India’s staple crops ↗

Consider the following statements regarding biofortification as a strategy to address micronutrient deficiency in India's staple crops:Answer ▾
  1. Biofortification aims to enhance the nutrient content of crops through the plant's own biological processes during growth, rather than adding nutrients to food after harvest.
  2. Rising atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations have been shown to increase the density of micronutrients such as iron and zinc in cereal crops, thereby partly offsetting the effects of soil degradation.
  3. Agronomic biofortification — improving soil health and nutrient availability through farming practices — is considered complementary to seed-based biofortification in addressing micronutrient deficiencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Biofortification is fundamentally distinguished from post-harvest fortification in that it works by developing crop varieties (through conventional breeding, agronomic practices, or biotechnology) that accumulate higher levels of micronutrients — such as iron, zinc, and protein — within the plant itself during cultivation. This is an 'in-crop' approach, not an 'at-factory' intervention. Statement 2 is incorrect. Scientific evidence indicates that elevated atmospheric CO2 levels reduce — not increase — the concentration of micronutrients like iron, zinc, and protein in staple cereal crops. This 'nutrient dilution effect' under high-CO2 conditions is one of the key concerns driving interest in biofortification; combined with soil degradation from monocropping and declining soil biodiversity, the trend is toward declining nutritional quality, not improvement. Statement 3 is correct. Agronomic biofortification — which improves the uptake and accumulation of nutrients in crops by enhancing soil health, microbial activity, and nutrient availability — is widely recognised as a complementary strategy alongside seed-level (genetic/breeding) biofortification. Healthier soils with better nutrient profiles enable crops to absorb and retain more micronutrients, making agronomic practices an integral part of any comprehensive biofortification programme.

Agricultural technology · GS-III

Economy, Industry & AgricultureThe Hindu BusinessLine17 October

Why quality solar infrastructure matters for the future of Indian agriculture ↗

Consider the following statements regarding PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan):Answer ▾
  1. Component A of PM-KUSUM enables farmers, panchayats, and farmer cooperatives to set up small grid-connected solar power plants on their barren or fallow land, with surplus power sold to DISCOMs.
  2. PM-KUSUM is a scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, which serves as the nodal ministry for its implementation across all three components.
  3. The agrivoltaics component under PM-KUSUM 2.0 is designed to allow dual land use — simultaneous crop cultivation and solar power generation on the same agricultural land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct

Incorrect. The answer is B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Component A of PM-KUSUM allows individual farmers, panchayats, cooperatives, and farmer producer organisations to install small-scale (up to 2 MW) grid-connected solar power plants on their barren or fallow land, earning income by selling electricity to DISCOMs at a fixed tariff. This component directly supplements farm income beyond crop revenue. Statement 2 is incorrect: PM-KUSUM is a scheme administered by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare. MNRE is the nodal ministry responsible for the scheme's design, guidelines, and implementation framework, even though the scheme's beneficiaries are farmers and it targets agricultural energy security. This is a commonly confused institutional attribution. Statement 3 is correct: The agrivoltaics component — a defining feature of PM-KUSUM 2.0 — is specifically designed for dual land use, where the same parcel of agricultural land hosts both solar panels (elevated on structures) and crop cultivation underneath. This model allows farmers to earn from electricity sales while continuing to harvest crops, effectively stacking two income streams from a single land holding. The structural requirement (4–5 metres clearance for farm machinery) distinguishes agrivoltaic installations from standard rooftop or conventional ground-mounted solar systems.

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